Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 05:35
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
How come Jesus died on Friday and rose on Sunday? That's not 3 days and three nights.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
Did Trump show us once again that he is a master debater?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.